Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 18.06.2025 08:10
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Atheists who have read the Bible and think that contains immoral things, why do you assume that?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
I see lots of pictures of women who have huge clits are they real or what?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.